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He very clearly demonstrated how conscience works in a free will society (a society of blame and punishment) and in a no free will society (a society where there is no blame and punishment), so why the antagonism? That's what bothers me the most.
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He did not demonstrate, he claimed. If he had demonstrated it, we would at least know what he based his assumptions regarding conscience on. As it is, we don't! We merely know he claimed it worked a certain way, and that is it.
In fact, this question of "
Why should we assume that his claim regarding conscience is correct" has been asked of you time and time again, and you have yet to answer it.